You must also, then, think anything but vaginal intercourse unnatural; but the thing is, sex is sex, regardless of what it involves. The only thing that makes sexual intercourse between a man and a woman is that babies are made that way; otherwise, it's just as natural as any other method of intercourse. A barren woman, on the other hand, cannot produce babies; she has no potential to reproduce. None. By arguing that she would if things were different, you enable me to say, "well, if things were slightly different for a gay couple, and two men could have a baby together, then they would be able to reproduce with each other." In other words, the woman is barren, and therefore unable to have children. Things are not different for her. Two men cannot have children. Things are not different for them. Neither situation can lead to children - and so arguing "potential" is invalid.Originally Posted by Sorovis
Homosexuality is natural in that it naturally occurs; just because it doesn't lead to children doesn't make it unnatural. If it did, then sex that didn't lead to children, too, would be unnatural - and, basically, a "sin". Of course, by certain sects of Christianity it was/is - showing the general state of intolerance of interpersonal intimacy. Sex between two men can happen, and does - each possesses the organs that make it possible. The only thing "missing" in the ability to have children, which, as exemplified in the barren woman example, is not basis for claiming immorality.
I'm not totally clear on how sexual reproduction began - but I do know that it involved natural selection, unlike asexual reproduction. It may have begun as a similar process found in some viri - that being that a portion of DNA or RNA is injected into another organism and becomes part of the larger organism's genome. In plants it evolved from the pure fact that from one generation to the next, the meiotic division within reproductive cells changes; a flowering plant has 2n chromosomes in its nuclei - but it reproduces asexually to produce either pollen grains (microspores) with n chromosomes (i.e., half of the full amount), or megaspores (macrospores) that also have n chromosomes. These are full plants on their one, but remain limited, in the case of pollen, to three cells, or eight in the case of the megaspores (this being true for angiosperms). In some plants, though, the gametophytes, which these n-chromosomed plants are called, are larger, but they are still limited in size. Anyway, the cells that divide from them possess n chromosomes, too, and when they come into contact with each other, they form 2n organisms that grow into the larger plants we see around us. We give the label of male and female to plants, depending on whether they produce micro- or macrospores, but these are labels.If no one is 'designed', then where do different genders come from exactly? In evolution you might say, but what caused the single or multicellular organisms to begin the process of two gender reproduction? What advantages would it have over being asexual?
In fungi, sexual reproduction often involves no more than two differing strains of the same species coming together and, extending their hyphae so that they touch, merge their cells into each other (so producing cells each with two nuclei). There is no male or female in this example, just different strains.
Sexual reproduction may have evolved through similar means in animals. However, the important thing is that in evolutionary terms, it has very much greater advantages than does asexual reproduction. In sexual reproduction, an organism mixes its genes and characteristics with another, and forms a new individual with composite DNA - this means that, because of the variation, there is greater chance for adaptation and survival. You and your siblings, if you have any, are not exactly the same, and that aids your species because if your sister or brother is not immune to a certain disease because they are not genetically strong against it, then they may die as a result. You, on the other hand, possess a different genetic code, and so you may be resistant - and so you will survive. That means that at least one of your parents' children has survived to pass on their genes (which will, probably, mean that your children will inherit your strength against whatever it was that killed your sibling(s), meaning the gene pool is invested with strong genes). Asexual reproduction offers no such thing - if one organism spawns a thousand due to multiple generations of binary fission, and that one organism is weak to a certain disease, then odds are most, if not all, the offspring, which are, basically, clones of the "mother", are also weak to it - and so an entire population of organisms can be wiped out by one bout of sickness. However, asexual reproduction still survives in smaller organisms because it is an efficient way of reproducing for numbers, and even in the process of asexual reproduction, mutations do happen (far less commonly than in sexual reproduction).
Of course, it's a theory - but the evidence given by homosexual people themselves disagrees with the third person claims that they chose to be gay or lesbian; the parallels between many genetic conditions that may exist also support a statement that homosexuality is probably genetic, as does the fact that it is found in nature itself. Of course I can only say, "it is probably genetic, and I believe it is" - but you were claiming that it definitely wasn't, which is something you cannot do. The fact that no genes have been found is not because they aren't there, necessarily - it just means that no comprehensive search of the entire genome has been done. You provided the example of the one gene marker tested that came back inconclusive, but again, our genomes are thousands upon thousands of genes long, so trying to attribute homosexuality to that one would be fallacious, as would be claiming that it is caused by one gene alone.The information you give is very good and supports your case well. However, like you said, there may only be parallels between progeria and homosexuality. The genetic cause for homosexuality has not been found. Until (and if) it is, you can only suggest ways it may be genetic (by the way, I could not get to the site you posted. If you could go ahead and post quotes in future posts, I'll take it as from the site itself).
And yeah, okay, I'll quote from the site next time.
There is far more scientific evidence for the Big Bang than for what the Bible says; besides which, the Bible is hardly "proven" by the interpretation of some things to be what the viewer wants them to be. A scientific is not stated as fact and then evidence found to support it, as is the case of the Bible; rather, a scientific theory is reached after observations are made and trends noted, so that you aren't starting off with something to prove, but rather with things that may help you prove something else that you theorise after observation.Signs can be seen by things we've posted in this debate and by looking for them. Of course, you have seen no signs of the Big Bang either; you just follow what scientific evidence is provided that says it happens. Creationism has proof as well, but you must look for it or listen to it as you have done with the Big Bang theory.
Nobody is saying there is one single gene that causes homosexuality; people have been saying that homosexuality is likely genetic, i.e., caused by genes. That doesn't limit it to being the result of one gene, but many - and this is supported in the fact that some people are homosexual and some heterosexual, and some bisexual. If someone is heterosexual, then their genes are likely those that cause heterosexuality; the opposite is most likely true of homosexuality. Somebody who is bisexual, though, may possess a number of "straight" genes and a number of "gay" genes - meaning that, depending on the blend of genes in the genome, the person could be more attracted to people of the opposite gender than the same one, or any other combination. Bisexuality is not that 50% of all partners are one gender, and 50% the other; it could be 95:5, 30:70, or anything.I have posted many sites that have already clarified this: there is no homosexual gene. There are genes that may make a person more likely to be homosexual, but not one that outright causes homosexuality.
Just as a diversion, it is known that people find others attractive based more than partially on the way they smell. Given what I've said about sexual reproduction, and the way vastly different genes in two individuals, when combined, would give the baby more range of immunity, etc., it would make sense that people are attracted to those people with vastly different genes. This has been tested, and it's the case - and the way people smell has a lot to do with this. You will find someone more attractive based on their smell if their genes are vastly different from yours (because the smell you possess is ultimately different from the next person's, and so is a characteristic of your genetic makeup, too) - and so it would not be too preposterous at all to suggest that all attraction is based at least partly on this. That being the case, it would apply to gay people, too - true, the people aren't entering into a relationship that will lead to the natural birth of offspring, but the "wiring" is the same - the person attracted to the other is smelling them based on what their genes are, and, if reproduction was possible, then the baby would be more likely to be resistant to a wider range of conditions and diseases than if the immunities in the parents were the same.
I brought it up, and no, I didn't misinterpret it. I mentioned it because the Bible was being cited as correct entirely just because it had factual accuracies within it; however, the Iliad also has accuracies within it, and so I was drawing a comparison. Nobody takes all the Iliad says literally, or to be the truth, despite the inclusion of facts and accurate information - and the Bible is the same. It has accuracies and information that is accurate, but it is not, by any means, ultimately accurate just because of this.Originally Posted by ThePariah
Also, Heald, seriously, if you have nothing to actually add to the topic, I encourage you not to post - otherwise, all you're doing is spamming up a topic that is, actually, quite fine without comments that have little to no value. Either contribute, or don't talk at all, okay? Okay.