since the pdf does not work there is no way to determine the accuracy of their inflation adjustment process

the main point is probably that the CPI indicates a 4.4% annual rate of inflation over the study period (1968-present) whereas real wages have not risen by anywhere near this amount over the same period (stats from bureau of labor statistics). so the real wage to price index ratio has been stagnant at best and declining for decades overall

however the main premise that roy has adopted here is ignoring a fairly important issue

the phrase being used in the cited statistics is "real family income" - could there be some obvious reason why this is not just real income? the difference between the current generation and the previous is the incidence of two-income families

considering family income in this manner makes the difference in real wages over time appear fairly intolerable, given that the cited graphs display an 18% rise in the bottom quintile for family income, not individual hourly wages... what can we conclude from this